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Old 11-04-2008, 06:55 AM
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Default Why Is Rape a "Biologically-Based" Condition?

I am in the process of switching health insurance, and I am trying to get a plan that will fit my needs, but it is all so confusing. The T I hope to start therapy with said that I need to make sure that there are no visit limits for biologically-based mental health conditions. I thought she must have meant non-biologically based, (as I wan't BORN with the trauma), but as I sit here reading the info. packets, here's what it says:

"Treatment for rape-related mental or emotional disorders and treatment for children under age 19 are covered to the same extent as biologically based conditions."

While there is a visit limit for NON-BIOLOGICALLY based conditions, there is NO limit for biologically based conditions.

Now I can understand the children bit, since a child should be covered 100%, but I wondered why rape-related disorders were included in this. Granted, it's not a bad thing since that means that I will have unlimited care, but it's not like it says "PTSD-related conditions" or anything. Why are "rape-related disorders" singled out?
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